Post by imperfectgolfer on May 17, 2020 12:57:12 GMT -5
I have for many years promoted the "idea" of using an intact LAFW/LFFW golf swing technique as one of my favorite golf swing techniques and I have used Henrik Stenson as a prototypical example of a professional golfer who uses the intact LAFW/LFFW technique.
When using the intact LFFW technique, a golfer must always keep the clubshaft straight-inline with the lower 4" inches of the left lower forearm throughout the golf swing (especially the downswing between P4 => P7), which means that the golfer should not bend or bow the left wrist and destroy the intact LFFW alignment at any time point during the downswing.
The question then becomes - is that intact LFFW technique compatible with the following Phil Cheetham graph.
When using the intact LFFW technique, a golfer must always keep the clubshaft straight-inline with the lower 4" inches of the left lower forearm throughout the golf swing (especially the downswing between P4 => P7), which means that the golfer should not bend or bow the left wrist and destroy the intact LFFW alignment at any time point during the downswing.
The question then becomes - is that intact LFFW technique compatible with the following Phil Cheetham graph.
Note that the left wrist is extended between P4 and ~P5.5 and it then becomes flexed after P5.5.
Is it possible to still have an intact LFFW under those conditions where the left wrist is significantly dorsiflexed at P4 and far less dorsiflexed between P6 and impact? I could never understand how that could be possible until recently, and I now think that I can explain the underlying biomechanics that makes it possible.
I recently found this delightful swing video collection composed from many slow motion Henrik Stenson swing videos.
Here are capture images of HS's intact LAFW/LFFW swing action - as seen from different angles.
Image 1 is at P1.5, image 2 is at P3, image 3 is at P4, image 4 is at P5, image 5 is at P6 and image 6 is at P6.5.
Note that HS has an intact LAFW at P1.5, P3, P4,, P5 and P6.5. He does not have an intact LAFW at P5.5 because of his clubshaft shallowing action, but he still has an intact LFFW (where the clubshaft is straight-line-aligned with the lower 4" of his left forearm).
Note that he has roughly the same degree of left wrist dorsiflexion (cupping) at P1.5, P3, P4, and P5 - but not at P6 and P6.5 where his left wrist is far less dorsiflexed.
Here are other capture images taken from a different viewing angle that show the same phenomenon.
Image 1 is at P4, image 2 is at P5.5, image 3 is at P6 and image 4 is at P6.5.
Note that he has an intact LAFW at P4 and an intact LFFW at P5.5, P6 and P6.5.
However, note that his left wrist is overtly dorsiflexed at P4 and far less dorsiflexed at P6/P6.5.
How is it possible to maintain an intact LFFW all the way between P4 and P6.5 (or to impact) while varying the degree of left wrist dorsiflexion so much that the left wrist will be overtly cupped at P4 but far less cupped (and even slightly palmar flexed) between P6 and impact?
I could never understand this point, but I have now acquired a new insight that explains how the left wrist can vary in its degree of left wrist cupping to a significant degree while still maintaining an intact LFFW.
Consider this capture image of me demonstrating an intact LAFW/GFLW alignment.
Note that I have an intact LAFW where the clubshaft (dotted yellow line) is straight-line-aligned with the left arm (solid yellow line) and under those conditions I have a GFLW (represented by the green line). However, my left wrist is still dorsiflexed to a finite degree because I have adopted a neutral left hand grip.
What will happen if I radially deviate, or ulnar deviate my left wrist, while still maintaining an intact LAFW/GFLW? What happens automatically/naturally is that my left wrist will become much more cupped when I maximally radially deviate my left wrist and become overtly flat (and not cupped) when I maximally ulnar-deviate my left wrist. In other words, this natural biomechanical phenomenon can explain why HS's left wrist is significantly dorsiflexed at P4 (when his left wrist is maximally radially-deviated) and how it becomes far less dorsiflexed (and even flat) between P6 and impact when the left wrist becomes increasingly ulnar-deviated - even though the LFFW is still intact at all those positions due to an absence of any left wrist bending or bowing action.
Jeff.